Radiography loksewa and NHPC license EXAM preparation

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📝 NHPC Radiography Model MCQ Set (50 Questions)

Format: Objective (MCQs)
For: NHPC Radiography Licensing Exam
Total Questions: 50
Answer Key: Provided at the end BY RAJENDRA BHATT


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Section 1: Radiation Physics (Q1–Q10)

1. What is the unit of radiation dose equivalent?

a) Gray

b) Sievert

c) Becquerel

d) Curie

2. Characteristic X-rays are produced by:

a) Nuclear decay

b) Outer shell electron interaction

c) Inner shell electron transition

d) Heat production

3. The target material in diagnostic X-ray tube is usually:

a) Tungsten

b) Aluminum

c) Copper

d) Lead

4. The quality of an X-ray beam is primarily affected by:

a) mA

b) Time

c) kVp

d) SID

5. Bremsstrahlung radiation results from:

a) Electron slowing down near nucleus

b) Inner shell transition

c) Nuclear fusion

d) Photoelectric interaction

6. Anode heel effect is more prominent with:

a) Large focal spot

b) Small SID

c) Wide exposure field

d) Long exposure time

7. Half-value layer (HVL) is related to:

a) X-ray energy

b) Film sensitivity

c) Patient dose

d) Exposure time

8. mAs affects:

a) Contrast

b) Beam quality

c) Beam quantity

d) Spatial resolution

9. Leakage radiation from X-ray tube should not exceed:

a) 1 mGy/hr at 1 m

b) 0.5 mGy/hr at 1 m

c) 1 mSv/hr at 1 m

d) 0.25 mSv/hr at 1 m

10. Which interaction is dominant in diagnostic range?

a) Compton scattering

b) Photoelectric effect

c) Pair production

d) Coherent scattering

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Section 2: Radiographic Technique & Positioning (Q11–Q20)

11. The best view to visualize spondylolysis in lumbar spine is:

a) AP

b) Lateral

c) Oblique

d) Flexion-extension

12. Tangential projection is commonly used for:

a) Shoulder

b) Patella

c) Skull

d) Hip

13. The FFD (SID) used in chest X-ray is:

a) 100 cm

b) 180 cm

c) 150 cm

d) 120 cm

14. Which view demonstrates the odontoid process?

a) Lateral cervical

b) Open mouth

c) AP cervical

d) Swimmer's view

15. Modified Waters view is used to visualize:

a) Frontal sinus

b) Maxillary sinus

c) Ethmoid sinus

d) Sphenoid sinus

16. What is the CR angle for AP axial chest radiograph (lordotic)?

a) 5° caudad

b) 10° cephalad

c) 15–20° cephalad

d) 30° cephalad

17. PA projection of the wrist best demonstrates:

a) Scaphoid

b) Pisiform

c) Capitate

d) Lunate

18. In PNS view, OML is:

a) Parallel to film

b) Perpendicular to CR

c) Forms 37° with film

d) Forms 90° with CR

19. Lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate:

a) Air-fluid level

b) Bowel obstruction

c) Kidney stones

d) Pneumothorax

20. Which view is best for temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

a) Townes

b) Schuller’s

c) Caldwell

d) SMV

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Section 3: Contrast Media & Special Procedure (Q21–Q30)

21. Barium sulfate is contraindicated in:

a) Hiatal hernia

b) Suspected perforation

c) GERD

d) Achalasia

22. Which contrast is used for ERCP?

a) Non-ionic iodinated

b) Ionic iodinated

c) Barium

d) Gadolinium

23. T-tube cholangiography is performed:

a) Pre-op

b) During surgery

c) Post-op

d) After barium study

24. Common route for IVP contrast:

a) Oral

b) IV

c) Re**al

d) Subcutaneous

25. Retrograde urography involves:

a) IV injection

b) Direct injection via catheter

c) Oral contrast

d) Nasogastric tube

26. What is the % of iodine contrast typically used in IVU?

a) 10%

b) 20%

c) 30–60%

d) 70–90%

27. What is the indication for barium e***a?

a) Suspected perforation

b) Colon tumor

c) Appendicitis

d) Acute trauma

28. Air in double contrast study acts as:

a) Positive contrast

b) Negative contrast

c) Nephrotoxic agent

d) No contrast

29. Gadolinium is used in:

a) MRI

b) CT

c) X-ray

d) Fluoroscopy

30. The contrast used in HSG:

a) Barium

b) Gadolinium

c) Water-soluble iodine

d) Gastrografin

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Section 4: Radiation Protection & Equipment (Q31–Q40)

31. The personal dosimeter used for long-term monitoring:

a) Pocket dosimeter

b) TLD

c) GM Counter

d) Survey meter

32. Lead apron minimum thickness:

a) 0.25 mm Pb

b) 0.5 mm Pb

c) 1 mm Pb

d) 0.75 mm Pb

33. Annual dose limit for occupational worker (whole body):

a) 20 mSv

b) 50 mSv

c) 10 mSv

d) 1 mSv

34. ICRP stands for:

a) International Council for Radiological Physics

b) International Commission on Radiological Protection

c) Institute for Clinical Radiological Protection

d) International Committee of Radiation Personnel

35. Which filter is used in mammography?

a) Aluminum

b) Molybdenum

c) Copper

d) Lead

36. Purpose of collimator:

a) Increase image brightness

b) Reduce patient dose

c) Increase magnification

d) Shield operator

37. The Bucky grid is used to:

a) Improve contrast

b) Reduce mAs

c) Increase fog

d) Increase scatter

38. Film badge is replaced:

a) Monthly

b) Weekly

c) Yearly

d) Every 3 months

39. Protective barrier for control booth is:

a) Primary

b) Secondary

c) None

d) Scatter

40. Which device measures leakage radiation?

a) TLD

b) Ion chamber survey meter

c) Geiger counter

d) Pocket dosimeter

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Section 5: Anatomy, Pathology & Misc. (Q41–Q50)

41. Pneumothorax appears as:

a) Hyperlucent area

b) Opacified lung

c) White shadow

d) Fluid level

42. The scapula lies between which ribs?

a) 1–4

b) 2–7

c) 3–8

d) 4–10

43. Bone metastasis is commonly evaluated by:

a) MRI

b) Bone scan

c) Ultrasound

d) Mammography

44. The first cervical vertebra is:

a) Axis

b) Atlas

c) Dens

d) Lamina

45. Cobb angle is used in:

a) Kyphosis

b) Scoliosis

c) Spondylosis

d) Lordosis

46. Pott’s spine is related to:

a) Rheumatoid arthritis

b) Osteomyelitis

c) Tuberculosis

d) Fracture

47. The central ray for abdomen AP is directed at:

a) Umbilicus

b) Iliac crest

c) ASIS

d) Xiphoid

48. In IVU, nephrogram phase appears:

a) Immediately

b) After 5 mins

c) After 15 mins

d) After 30 mins

49. Fracture of the base of skull is best seen in:

a) Caldwell view

b) Towne’s view

c) Waters view

d) Lateral skull

50. The tail of the pancreas is located near:

a) Duodenum

b) Liver

c) Spleen

d) Gallbladder

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✅ Answer Key

1. b 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. b

2. c 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b

3. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. c

4. b 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. b

5. a 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. c

गुरुर्ब्रह्मा गुरुर्विष्णु गुरुर्देवो महेश्वरा ।
गुरुर्साक्षात् परब्रह्म तस्मै श्री गुरवे नमः ॥
🙏🙏 Happy Guru Purnima 🙏🙏🙏
मलाई बाल्यावस्था देखि आजसम्म अक्षर चिनाइ ज्ञानको ज्योति दिई अगाडी बढ्न प्रेरणा सुझाव सर-सल्लाह र जीवन उपयोगी शिक्षा दिनुहुने सम्पुर्ण अलौकिक तथा अलौकिक गुरुजन प्रति हार्दिक नमन सम्मान तथा शिर झुकाई प्रणाम !
गुरुहरुको सु-स्वास्थ दिर्घायु तथा उत्तर उत्तर प्रगतिको कामना ।

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💀 Towne’s View (Skull) – Important MCQs

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1. Towne’s view is mainly used to evaluate:
A. Facial bones
B. Maxillary sinuses
C. Occipital bone and foramen magnum
D. Nasal bones
✅ Answer: C. Occipital bone and foramen magnum

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2. What is the central ray angulation for a proper Towne’s view (AP axial projection) of the skull?
A. 10° caudad
B. 15° cephalad
C. 30° caudad
D. 45° caudad
✅ Answer: C. 30° caudad (to OML)

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3. In Towne’s view, which anatomical line is perpendicular to the image receptor if using a 30° angle?
A. IOML
B. AML
C. OML
D. MML
✅ Answer: C. OML (Orbitomeatal Line)

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4. If the IOML is perpendicular instead of the OML in Towne’s view, what is the correct CR angle?
A. 25° caudad
B. 37° caudad
C. 45° caudad
D. 30° caudad
✅ Answer: B. 37° caudad

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5. Which structure is best visualized in the center of the foramen magnum on a correct Towne’s view?
A. Pituitary gland
B. Dorsum sellae
C. Petrous ridge
D. Ethmoid sinus
✅ Answer: B. Dorsum sellae

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6. Improper positioning of the skull in Towne’s view may lead to elongation or foreshortening of which structure?
A. Mandible
B. Mastoid
C. Occipital bone
D. Frontal sinus
✅ Answer: C. Occipital bone

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7. What is the patient position for a Towne’s view?
A. Supine with chin elevated
B. Prone with chin elevated
C. Supine with chin tucked
D. Upright with head tilted laterally
✅ Answer: C. Supine with chin tucked

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8. What is the typical SID (source to image distance) used in Towne’s projection?
A. 40 cm
B. 40 inches (100 cm)
C. 72 inches
D. 150 cm
✅ Answer: B. 40 inches (100 cm)

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9. In a Towne’s view, overangulation of the CR can project which structure into the foramen magnum?
A. Frontal sinus
B. Maxilla
C. Posterior arch of C1
D. Petrous ridge
✅ Answer: C. Posterior arch of C1

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10. The central ray exits at which anatomical landmark in Towne’s projection?
A. Nasion
B. Glabella
C. External occipital protuberance
D. Mental point
✅ Answer: B. Glabella

Rajeendra bhatt mcqs

Here are 40 Best Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on the Skeletal System, ideal for PSC Radiography Exam preparation:

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🦴 40 Best MCQs – Skeletal System (For Radiography PSC)

✅ Basic Anatomy

1. How many bones are there in the adult human skeleton?
A. 206 B. 208 C. 210 D. 215
✅ Answer: A

2. Which of the following is the longest bone in the body?
A. Tibia B. Humerus C. Radius D. Femur
✅ Answer: D

3. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
A. Scapula B. Femur C. Sternum D. Clavicle
✅ Answer: C

4. How many ribs are there in the human body?
A. 10 pairs B. 12 pairs C. 14 pairs D. 16 pairs
✅ Answer: B

5. The adult vertebral column consists of how many vertebrae?
A. 26 B. 28 C. 33 D. 24
✅ Answer: A

6. The first cervical vertebra is called:
A. Axis B. Atlas C. Odontoid D. Occiput
✅ Answer: B

7. Which bone forms the forehead?
A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Occipital D. Parietal
✅ Answer: B

8. Which bone houses the pituitary gland?
A. Frontal B. Ethmoid C. Sphenoid D. Parietal
✅ Answer: C

9. The occipital bone articulates with which cervical vertebra?
A. Axis B. Atlas C. C3 D. C5
✅ Answer: B

10. How many bones are there in the skull (excluding auditory ossicles)?
A. 20 B. 22 C. 24 D. 26
✅ Answer: B

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✅ Joints and Articulations

11. Which joint is known as a ball-and-socket joint?
A. Elbow B. Knee C. Shoulder D. Ankle
✅ Answer: C

12. The type of joint found between cranial bones is:
A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Suture D. Gliding
✅ Answer: C

13. The knee joint is an example of:
A. Ball and socket B. Saddle C. Hinge D. Pivot
✅ Answer: C

14. The sacroiliac joint connects the sacrum to the:
A. Femur B. Coccyx C. Ilium D. P***s
✅ Answer: C

15. Which of the following is NOT a synovial joint?
A. Shoulder B. Elbow C. Sutures of skull D. Hip
✅ Answer: C

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✅ Radiographic Relevance

16. Which bone is most commonly fractured in the human body?
A. Humerus B. Clavicle C. Femur D. Tibia
✅ Answer: B

17. Radiographically, bones appear:
A. Radiolucent B. Radiopaque C. Transparent D. Gray
✅ Answer: B

18. The acetabulum is part of the:
A. Scapula B. Pelvis C. Tibia D. Humerus
✅ Answer: B

19. Which projection best demonstrates scoliosis?
A. Lateral skull B. PA chest C. AP lumbar spine D. PA full spine
✅ Answer: D

20. The dens or odontoid process is found on:
A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C7
✅ Answer: B

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✅ Bones of Upper and Lower Limbs

21. Which of the following bones is found in the arm?
A. Femur B. Radius C. Fibula D. Calcaneus
✅ Answer: B

22. The olecranon process is part of the:
A. Radius B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Scapula
✅ Answer: C

23. How many phalanges are in one hand?
A. 12 B. 14 C. 15 D. 16
✅ Answer: B

24. Which bone connects the axial to appendicular skeleton at the shoulder?
A. Scapula B. Clavicle C. Sternum D. Rib
✅ Answer: B

25. The patella is classified as a:
A. Irregular bone B. Long bone C. Flat bone D. Sesamoid bone
✅ Answer: D

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✅ Vertebral Column

26. How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 12 D. 10
✅ Answer: C

27. Which vertebra is known for the vertebra prominens?
A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. T1
✅ Answer: C

28. Lumbar vertebrae are best seen in which radiographic view?
A. AP pelvis B. Lateral lumbar spine C. PA chest D. Oblique cervical
✅ Answer: B

29. Kyphosis is the curvature of the:
A. Lumbar spine B. Thoracic spine C. Cervical spine D. Sacral spine
✅ Answer: B

30. Lordosis normally occurs in which region?
A. Thoracic B. Cervical and Lumbar C. Sacral only D. Thoracic and Sacral
✅ Answer: B

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✅ Miscellaneous

31. The bone commonly known as the collarbone is:
A. Clavicle B. Scapula C. Sternum D. Humerus
✅ Answer: A

32. The tarsal bone forming the heel is the:
A. Talus B. Navicular C. Cuboid D. Calcaneus
✅ Answer: D

33. Which bone supports the weight of the body while sitting?
A. Ilium B. Ischium C. P***s D. Sacrum
✅ Answer: B

34. Osteoporosis primarily affects which part of the skeleton?
A. Flat bones B. Long bones C. Trabecular bones D. Compact bones
✅ Answer: C

35. Which of the following bones contains the glenoid cavity?
A. Clavicle B. Humerus C. Scapula D. Sternum
✅ Answer: C

36. The zygomatic bone is also known as:
A. Cheekbone B. Jawbone C. Forehead D. Chin
✅ Answer: A

37. Which bone is part of the pelvic girdle?
A. Femur B. Ilium C. Sacrum D. Coccyx
✅ Answer: B

38. How many carpals are present in one wrist?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12
✅ Answer: B

39. The mandibular condyle articulates with:
A. Zygomatic bone B. Maxilla C. Temporal bone D. Frontal bone
✅ Answer: C

40. The epiphyseal plate is involved in:
A. Joint lubrication B. Bone growth C. Bone destruction D. Bone absorption
✅ Answer: B

Here are Radiography PSC-related Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on the Skeletal System, useful for preparing for exams like PSC Bagmati Radiography:

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🦴 Skeletal System - MCQs for Radiography Exam

1. How many bones are there in the adult human skeleton?
A. 206
B. 210
C. 201
D. 230
✅ Answer: A. 206

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2. Which bone is the longest and strongest in the human body?
A. Humerus
B. Femur
C. Tibia
D. Radius
✅ Answer: B. Femur

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3. The axial skeleton includes all of the following except:
A. Skull
B. Vertebral column
C. Ribs
D. Pelvic girdle
✅ Answer: D. Pelvic girdle

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4. How many cervical vertebrae are there?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
✅ Answer: C. 7

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5. The radiographic view best to demonstrate the lumbar spine is:
A. PA chest view
B. AP lumbar spine view
C. Lateral cervical spine
D. Oblique thoracic spine
✅ Answer: B. AP lumbar spine view

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6. Which bone forms the forehead?
A. Parietal
B. Occipital
C. Temporal
D. Frontal
✅ Answer: D. Frontal

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7. The 'scapula' is part of which skeletal region?
A. Axial skeleton
B. Appendicular skeleton
C. Skull
D. Vertebral column
✅ Answer: B. Appendicular skeleton

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8. The "atlas" is the first:
A. Thoracic vertebra
B. Cervical vertebra
C. Sacral vertebra
D. Lumbar vertebra
✅ Answer: B. Cervical vertebra

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9. How many pairs of ribs does the human body typically have?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 24
✅ Answer: B. 12

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10. The acetabulum is a part of which bone?
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Hip bone (Pelvis)
D. Sacrum
✅ Answer: C. Hip bone (Pelvis)

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11. The bone that forms the posterior part of the hard palate is the:
A. Maxilla
B. Palatine
C. Zygomatic
D. Vomer
✅ Answer: B. Palatine

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12. The most common site for osteoporotic fractures is:
A. Skull
B. Vertebrae
C. Femur
D. Tibia
✅ Answer: B. Vertebrae

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13. The joint between the humerus and scapula is a:
A. Hinge joint
B. Ball and socket joint
C. Gliding joint
D. Pivot joint
✅ Answer: B. Ball and socket joint

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14. Radiographically, bone appears:
A. Radiolucent
B. Radiopaque
C. Isointense
D. Transparent
✅ Answer: B. Radiopaque

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15. The normal curvature of the lumbar spine is:
A. Kyphotic
B. Lordotic
C. Scoliotic
D. Flat
✅ Answer: B. Lordotic

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